Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 14:06
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
How do I become an intelligent man?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Can you share the entire summary of your spiritual life?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Which Bibles can one read and be confident they are reading the inerrant word of God?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.